I have read people saying that "all/most men are attracted to both women and boys. That bothers me because I do not like the idea of someone who can not form a true love relationship with another male (even if it is one sided) using boys for sex. Why are you assuming that men attracted to both are more likely to be "using boys for sex"? I would have thought, if anything, the opposite is more likely, that men who can have sex with women as an alternative, are less likely to be fixated on making sex part of whatever relationships they have with boys. Otherwise, I have to say I find all this very modern, particularly the obsession with sexual orientation and its supposed consequences for much broader questions such as who is drawn to what kind of love with whom, especially during the fluid stage of early adolescence and especially in ancient times when these silly labels hadn't been invented. I don't think an ancient Greek would begin to understand what you're banging on about. I realise that doesn't bother you, but it's a shame because without seeing beyond your recent American model of sexual behaviour, much of what humanity has been up, and why, will elude you. Ancient Greek pederasty was widely practised and well documented, so it is revealing without any need to idealise it. I referred only to it simply because Pharmakon asked my opinion about how it worked. www.amazon.com/dp/1481222112 |