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>The difference between 19th c. US/UK versus Sweden today is clear for me. In the 19th century, both the US and the UK specified the death penalty for homosexuality. I know some sodomy laws are/were on the books, but they are employed against GL men, the kind who could have been happily married or at least happily out of prison prior to the legal reforms - not to homosexuals! For the historical enforcement, or lack thereof, of these laws, see the Guardian article[1]. I see no evidence of relevant Swedish laws being as lenient, in wording or enforcement. >During the 20th century, many thousands of men in both the US and western Europe had their social standing and employment prospects destroyed as a result of the enforcement of anti-gay laws How do the presumably strictly delineated gays[2] stack up against pedophiles, who lost their friends, families, freedom or even their lives since the legal reforms? As homosexuals already could have legal sex in Sweden in the 1940s, and in Denmark in the 1950s, there were easy outs - which don't apply for pedophiles. I refer to Thomas Hubbard, whose works were mentioned by Tom O'Carroll. [1] https://www.theguardian.com/books/2019/may/24/naomi-wolf-admits-blunder-over-victorians-and-sodomy-executions [2] https://www.bbc.co.uk/news/uk-politics-37707030 |