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since when did the law determine morality?

Posted by Asbel on 2017-April-25 17:12:25, Tuesday
In reply to Why doesn't the 1st Amendment mention obscenity? posted by Lysander on 2017-April-24 10:52:30, Monday

Human-made laws are subject to change and imperfect. The law does NOT necessarily determine what is moral or immoral. If you ask me, throwing people in jail for downloading cp is an outrageous violation of free speech. Yet it is perfectly legal for the government to wage the most horrific wars imaginable, as long as it is profitable for the sponsors of the said war. Remember it is perfectly legal to persecute a minority population if most people think that is the right thing to do. The way the persecute pedophiles today is no different from how the Nazis in Germany used to persecute the Jews. History, sadly, repeats itself, even if it might be with a different scapegoat each time.

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