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Why doesn't the 1st Amendment mention obscenity?

Posted by Lysander on 2017-April-24 10:52:30, Monday
In the 18th century, most people would've supported laws banning obscene speech, pictures, etc., right? So why didn't they write that into the First Amendment?

Did they figure, "Well, everyone is going to realize that we didn't mean to protect obscene speech; c'mon, that should be obvious"?
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